What are the four main categories of tissues?

1. epithelial; 2. connective; 3. nervous; 4. muscle; (Mnemonic: Emily's Chocolate Never Melts)

What kind of tissue is skin?

epithelial; (Note: epithelial tissue usually functions as a covering in some manner. )

What is it called when the body brings conditions back to their normal homeostatic function?

negative feedback; (Note: the body wants to maintain balance. This is the body's most popular way to achieve that end)

What is it called when the body intensifies a condition beyond it's normal limits?

positive feedback; (Note: In a way, this still maintains balance - the difference in this case is that the body must over exceed its equilibrium to bring it back eventually)

What is the movement of gases in and out of the body called?

respiration; (Note: this term can also mean cellular respiration = production of ATP in mitochondria)

What is thermoregulation?

control of exchange of heat with the environment.

What are the three terms to describe an organism that obtains body heat from the environment?

1. ectotherm; 2. poikilotherms; 3. cold-blooded

What are the three terms to describe an organism that generates its own body heat?

1. endotherms; 2. homeotherms; 3. warm-blooded

How does evaporation act as a regulatory mechanism for animals?

body heat is removed through liquid evaporation.; (Note: evaporation is an endothermic process- energy needs to be put in for reaction to occur)

How does metabolism act as a regulatory mechanism for animals?

muscle contraction + other metabolic activities produce heat

How can surface area act as a regulatory mechanism for animals?

1. vasodilation (increase diameter of extremity vessels) helps remove heat; 2. vasoconstriction (decreasing diameter of extremity vessels) helps retain heat

What regulatory mechanism is displayed when the body increases blood flow to the ears?

using surface area for thermoregulation; (Note: sending blood to ears is an example of vasodilation and helps remove heat)

How many lobes does the left lung have?

two; (Note: the left lung has to be smaller than the right lung to make room for the heart)

What are the two layers of the pleurae?

1. visceral pleura; 2. parietal pleura;

What is the space between the two layers of the pleurae called?

intrapleural space; (AKA: pleural space);

In the intrapleural space, how does the pressure compare to atmospheric pressure?

it has a lower (negative) pressure compared to atmospheric; (Note: this allows the lungs to remain inflated at all times)

What would happen to lungs if the intrapleural space was punctured?

lungs would collapse; (Note: intrapleural space is now atmospheric pressure, presses up against lungs which results in collapse)

What happens to the pressure inside the lungs when we inhale?

the pressure; decreases; (Note: diaphragm; contracts -> lung cavity; increases in volume ->; increased volume =; decreased pressure ->; air, which is higher pressure; rushes into lungs);

What happens to the pressure in the lungs when we exhale?

the pressure; increases; (Note: diaphragm; relaxes -> decreases; lungs' volume->; increases lungs'; pressure above; atmospheric->; air rushes out);

What is the function of breathing?

gas exchange:; 1. Oxygen (O2) in; 2. Carbon dioxide (CO2) and water out

What form is CO2 mostly transported in blood?

as bicarbonate; (abbreviated as HCO3-)

What are the mechanisms by which CO2 is transported in the blood apart from HCO3-?

1. it can dissolve in the blood plasma in its gaseous form; 2. it can bind to hemoglobin (called carbaminohemoglobin)

What is the reaction to convert CO2 into HCO3-?

(Note: carbonic acid intermediate);

What are alveoli coated in to reduce surface tension?

surfactant; (Note: too much surface tension from H2O would collapse the alveoli)

What are the two kinds of epithelial cells in human alveoli?

1. type 1 (structural support); 2. type 2 (produce surfactant)

How are dust and mucous removed from the pharynx?

swept back from nose by cilia - disposed by either spitting or swallowing

What are the smaller branches off the two bronchi in the lungs called?

bronchioles (AKA secondary bronchi);

Public flashcard deck · 500 cards

DAT Structural Systems Part 1

Study this deck free Add to my library

Front
Groups of cells that have similar; structure and function together as a unit are called what?
Back
tissues
Front
What are the four main categories of tissues?
Back
1. epithelial; 2. connective; 3. nervous; 4. muscle; (Mnemonic: Emily's Chocolate Never Melts)
Front
What kind of tissue is skin?
Back
epithelial; (Note: epithelial tissue usually functions as a covering in some manner. )
Front
What kind of tissue is bone and cartilage?
Back
connective
Front
What kind of tissue is blood?
Back
connective
Front
What is it called when the body brings conditions back to their normal homeostatic function?
Back
negative feedback; (Note: the body wants to maintain balance. This is the body's most popular way to achieve that end)
Front
What is it called when the body intensifies a condition beyond it's normal limits?
Back
positive feedback; (Note: In a way, this still maintains balance - the difference in this case is that the body must over exceed its equilibrium to bring it back eventually)
Front
What is the movement of gases in and out of the body called?
Back
respiration; (Note: this term can also mean cellular respiration = production of ATP in mitochondria)
Front
What is thermoregulation?
Back
control of exchange of heat with the environment.
Front
What are the three terms to describe an organism that obtains body heat from the environment?
Back
1. ectotherm; 2. poikilotherms; 3. cold-blooded
Front
What are the three terms to describe an organism that generates its own body heat?
Back
1. endotherms; 2. homeotherms; 3. warm-blooded
Front
How does evaporation act as a regulatory mechanism for animals?
Back
body heat is removed through liquid evaporation.; (Note: evaporation is an endothermic process- energy needs to be put in for reaction to occur)
Front
How does metabolism act as a regulatory mechanism for animals?
Back
muscle contraction + other metabolic activities produce heat
Front
How can surface area act as a regulatory mechanism for animals?
Back
1. vasodilation (increase diameter of extremity vessels) helps remove heat; 2. vasoconstriction (decreasing diameter of extremity vessels) helps retain heat
Front
What regulatory mechanism is displayed when the body increases blood flow to the ears?
Back
using surface area for thermoregulation; (Note: sending blood to ears is an example of vasodilation and helps remove heat)
Front
What kind of respiration occurs when air enters lungs, allowing the alveoli to exchange gas with the blood?
Back
external respiration;
Front
What kind of respiration occurs when the blood exchanges gas with the tissues?
Back
internal respiration;
Front
Lungs are ______ structures.
Back
invaginated;
Front
How many lobes does the left lung have?
Back
two; (Note: the left lung has to be smaller than the right lung to make room for the heart)
Front
How many lobes does the right lung have?
Back
three
Front
What are the membranous coverings of the lungs called?
Back
pleurae;
Front
What are the two layers of the pleurae?
Back
1. visceral pleura; 2. parietal pleura;
Front
What is the space between the two layers of the pleurae called?
Back
intrapleural space; (AKA: pleural space);
Front
What does the visceral pleura line?
Back
surface of the lungs;
Front
What does the parietal pleura line?
Back
inside of the chest cavity;
Front
In the intrapleural space, how does the pressure compare to atmospheric pressure?
Back
it has a lower (negative) pressure compared to atmospheric; (Note: this allows the lungs to remain inflated at all times)
Front
What happens to the pressure of the intrapleural space when we inhale?
Back
the pressure decreases
Front
What would happen to lungs if the intrapleural space was punctured?
Back
lungs would collapse; (Note: intrapleural space is now atmospheric pressure, presses up against lungs which results in collapse)
Front
What happens to the pressure inside the lungs when we inhale?
Back
the pressure; decreases; (Note: diaphragm; contracts -> lung cavity; increases in volume ->; increased volume =; decreased pressure ->; air, which is higher pressure; rushes into lungs);
Front
What happens to the pressure in the lungs when we exhale?
Back
the pressure; increases; (Note: diaphragm; relaxes -> decreases; lungs' volume->; increases lungs'; pressure above; atmospheric->; air rushes out);
Front
What kind of process is exhalation?
Back
passive
Front
What is the function of breathing?
Back
gas exchange:; 1. Oxygen (O2) in; 2. Carbon dioxide (CO2) and water out
Front
What form is CO2 mostly transported in blood?
Back
as bicarbonate; (abbreviated as HCO3-)
Front
What are the mechanisms by which CO2 is transported in the blood apart from HCO3-?
Back
1. it can dissolve in the blood plasma in its gaseous form; 2. it can bind to hemoglobin (called carbaminohemoglobin)
Front
What is the reaction to convert CO2 into HCO3-?
Back
(Note: carbonic acid intermediate);
Front
What enzyme helps convert CO2 into HCO3-?
Back
carbonic anhydrase
Front
Where does the process of converting CO2 to HCO3- take place?
Back
red blood cells (RBCs)
Front
How is O2 carried in the blood?
Back
hemoglobin in RBCs
Front
What is the structure called where gas exchange occurs in the lungs?
Back
alveoli
Front
What are alveoli coated in to reduce surface tension?
Back
surfactant; (Note: too much surface tension from H2O would collapse the alveoli)
Front
What are the two kinds of epithelial cells in human alveoli?
Back
1. type 1 (structural support); 2. type 2 (produce surfactant)
Front
What structure filters, moistens, and warms incoming air in the respiratory system
Back
nose;
Front
What structures secrete mucus and trap large dust particles in the nose?
Back
goblet cells
Front
What structure is called the throat and acts as a passageway for food and air?
Back
pharynx;
Front
How are dust and mucous removed from the pharynx?
Back
swept back from nose by cilia - disposed by either spitting or swallowing
Front
What structure is called the voice box?
Back
larynx;
Front
If non-gas enters larynx, what response is activated?
Back
cough reflex
Front
What structure contains C shaped rings of cartilage and functions to deliver air to and from lungs?
Back
trachea;
Front
What is the trachea covered by to remove debris from the airway?
Back
ciliated mucus cells;
Front
What are the first branches off the trachea into the lungs?
Back
two bronchi;
Front
What are the smaller branches off the two bronchi in the lungs called?
Back
bronchioles (AKA secondary bronchi);
Front
What are the small sacs at the end of the bronchiole branches in the lungs called?
Back
alveoli;
Front
What are the alveoli surrounded by?
Back
blood-carrying capillaries; (Note: this is the whole point of having alveoli - LOTS of surface area to exchange gas with blood)
Front
How does gas cross the moist, sac membranes of the alveoli?
Back
simple diffusion
Front
How does O2 transfer into the tissues?
Back
diffuses out of RBCs-> capillary wall->interstitial fluids->cell membranes->cytoplasm; (Note: process for CO2 is the same steps in reverse)
Front
What describes an important phenomenon that refers to the shift in the oxygen dissociation curve caused by changes in the concentration of CO2 or pH?
Back
Bohr Effect;
Front
What shift on an oxygen dissociation curve corresponds with a decrease in hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen?
Back
right shift; (Note: dotted blue line);
Front
What shift in an oxygen dissociation curve corresponds with an increase in hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen?
Back
left shift; (Note: dotted red line);
Front
What shift does increased CO2 cause in the oxygen dissociation curve?
Back
right shift; (Note: increased CO2 in tissues; - lot of respiration; - more acidic; - and require more O2);
Front
What shift does increased pH cause in the oxygen dissociation curve?
Back
left shift; (Note: increased pH; means less acidity in; tissues = less respiration; taking place =; less oxygen requirements);
Front
What shift does increased temperature cause in the oxygen dissociation curve
Back
right shift; (structure of; hemoglobin favors; its deoxygenated state; in high temperature);
Front
What shift does increased 2,3-DPG AKA 2,3-BPG cause in the oxygen dissociation curve?
Back
right shift; (binds to hemoglobin; and stabilizes its; deoxygenated state =; more O2 release);
Front
How is 2,3-DPG produced?
Back
1. made from an intermediate compound in glycolysis; 2. made from an enzyme catalyzed reaction at low O2 levels.
Front
What effect does increased exercise have on CO2 levels?
Back
increases CO2 production; (Note: this result drops blood pH because CO2 is converted to HCO3- and H+ in RBCs)
Front
What is the mnemonic to help remember all the factors that shift the oxygen dissociation curve right?
Back
a CADET faces right; C - CO2; A - Acid; D - DPG; E - Exercise; T - Temperature; (Note: an increase; in all of these things; shifts the curve right)
Front
How do you know what shifts the oxygen dissociation curve left?
Back
think CADET but opposite!; (Note: decrease in all the factors results in shift left = increasing hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen)
Front
What effect does high CO2 and H+ have on hemoglobin?
Back
structural change to reduced form = release O2 to tissues and preferentially binds to CO2
Front
How does hemoglobin release CO2 back at the lungs?
Back
1. at lungs conditions are high O2, low CO2; 2. hemoglobin structure shifts to non-reduced state; 3. unloads CO2, picks up O2
Front
What term describes how the deoxygenation of blood increases its ability to carry CO2?
Back
Haldane Effect
Front
What does the Haldane Effect say about oxygenated hemoglobin?
Back
decreased ability to hold CO2
Front
When hemoglobin is reduced, what state does it have the capacity to form?
Back
carbaminohemoglobin = non-oxygen carrying kind; (Note: this is the mechanism for how the Haldane effect works)
Front
What is the best way to summarize the Haldane effect?
Back
[O2] affects hemoglobins binding to CO2 and H+; (note: process works in synchrony to facilitate the liberation of O2 and uptake of CO2 and H+)
Front
What percent of blood oxygen binds rapidly and reversibly to hemoglobin in RBC's?
Back
98%; (Note: called oxyhemoglobin)
Front
How many subunits does hemoglobin have?
Back
four;
Front
Each hemoglobin subunit houses a _____ cofactor
Back
heme; (Note: organic molecule; with an iron atom in the center);
Front
How many O2 molecules can the iron atom in a heme cofactor bind?
Back
one O2 molecule; (Note: total of four in; one molecule of hemoglobin);
Front
What is cooperativity in hemoglobin?
Back
when one molecule of; O2 binds, other O2; molecules can bind easier; (Note: explains sigmoidal; shape for oxygen; dissociation curve because; O2 binding changes; hemoglobin's affinity for; other O2 molecules);
Front
What effect does increased O2 pressure have on cooperativity?
Back
O2 saturation of; hemoglobin increases; (Note: this makes sense!; It is ideal to have; hemoglobin want to hang; onto oxygen in the lungs; and let go of oxygen in the tissues);
Front
According to the Bohr Effect, why do conditions of low pH decrease hemoglobin's affinity for O2?
Back
1. O2 and H+ compete for binding sites on hemoglobin; 2. low pH means high CO2 and high H+; 3. result is more O2 is unloaded at tissues
Front
What is the chloride shift?
Back
the exchange of Cl- for HCO3- ions in erythrocytes
Front
What is the chloride shift intended for?
Back
balance HCO3-; entering and leaving cells; (Note: both Cl- and; HCO3- carry the same; charge (-1), so they are; transported oppositely; in direct proportion);
Front
What is the part of the brain that primarily controls breathing?
Back
medulla oblongata;
Front
What does the medulla oblongata do when the partial pressure of CO2 increases?
Back
increases breathing
Front
When the medulla stimulates a breath, what happens to the diaphragm?
Back
contracts;
Front
What nerve innervates the diaphragm primarily?
Back
phrenic nerve
Front
What structure contains central chemoreceptors?
Back
medulla oblongata
Front
What do central chemoreceptors detect?
Back
indirectly monitor [H+] in the cerebrospinal fluid
Front
What structure contains peripheral chemoreceptors?
Back
heart; (specifically, carotid arteries and aorta)
Front
What do peripheral chemoreceptors detect?
Back
monitor the atrial concentrations of CO2, O2, and pH via [H+]
Front
What type of cell is found in the trachea and upper respiratory system?
Back
ciliated pseudostratified; columnar epithelial cells; (Note: tall = pack close; together = protect from; outside environment =; goblet cells are often; present to produce mucus);
Front
What disease is marked by the destruction of alveoli?
Back
emphysema; (Note: often caused by smoking)
Front
What effect can smoking cause in ciliated pseudostratified columnar cells in the respiratory tract?
Back
paralyze cilia; (Note: allows toxins to stay in lungs);
Front
What effect can smoking cause in goblet cells?
Back
increased mucous production; (Note: this, in tandem with damaged cilia results in a constant, yet unproductive cough)
Front
What diseases can the effects of smoking lead to?
Back
bronchitis, emphysema, and lung cancer
Front
What condition does respiratory acidosis result from?
Back
inadequate ventilation; (Note: don't blow off enough CO2, increased CO2-> increased H+ -> lower pH)
Front
What does the body do to compensate for respiratory acidosis?
Back
increase breathing rate; (Note: attempt to clear more CO2)
Front
What condition does respiratory alkalosis result from?
Back
breathing too rapidly; (Note: losing too much CO2 -> HCO3- and H+ combine to make CO2 -> replenish CO2 but lose H+, so increased pH)
Front
how does the body compensate for respiratory alkalosis?
Back
decrease breathing rate; (Note: clear less CO2)
Front
What kind of O2 dissociation curve does myoglobin possess?
Back
hyperbolic; (steep!);
Front
What is the reason for myoglobin's hyperbolic dissociation curve?
Back
Only one binding site!; No cooperativity!; (Note: useful in; emergency situations -; when ppO2 gets extremely low);
Front
How is the fetal hemoglobin O2 dissociation curve shifted relative to the adult hemoglobin curve?
Back
left;
Front
What is the reason for fetal hemoglobin's O2 dissociation curve shifted left?
Back
it needs to have a; higher binding affinity; compared to mom's; (Note: if it was the; same affinity in the; baby, it would not; be able to carry; oxygen to the fetal; tissues);
Front
How does carbon monoxide's binding affinity to hemoglobin compare to oxygen's?
Back
200x greater affinity for hemoglobin than oxygen; (Note: that is why it is deadly - extremely hard to remove once it is bound)
Front
What is the volume of air that is normally inhaled or exhaled in one quiet breath?
Back
tidal volume (Vt); (Note: think simple,; normal breathing);
Front
What is the maximum volume of air that can be inhaled after a normal tidal volume inhalation?
Back
inspiratory reserve volume (IRV); (Note: inhale normally, then; forcefully inhale as much as; you can after);
Front
What is the maximum volume of air that can be exhaled after a normal tidal volume exhalation
Back
expiratory reserve; volume (ERV); (Note: normal exhale,; then forcefully exhale; as much as you can after);
Front
What is the amount of air remaining in the lungs after maximum exhalation?
Back
residual volume (RV); (Note: air that is; impossible to exhale);
Front
What is the maximum volume of air that can be exhaled after a maximum inspiration?
Back
vital capacity (VC); (Note: expressed; as IRV + VT + ERV);
Front
What is the volume of air that can be inhaled after a normal exhalation?
Back
inspiratory capacity (IC); (Note: expressed as; VT + IRV);
Front
What is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after normal exhalation?
Back
functional residual; capacity (FRC); (Note: expressed; as ERV + RV);
Front
What is the maximum volume of air the lungs can accommodate?
Back
total lung; capacity (TLC); (Note: expressed; as IC + FRC);
Front
What is the source of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?
Back
posterior pituitary
Front
What is the target of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Back
kidney
Front
What is the action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Back
increases reabsorption of water
Front
What is the source of oxytocin?
Back
posterior pituitary
Front
What is the target of oxytocin?
Back
mammary gland
Front
What is the action of oxytocin?
Back
milk letdown
Front
What is the source of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)?
Back
anterior pituitary (tropic hormone)
Front
What is the target of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)?
Back
thyroid
Front
What is the action of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)?
Back
secretion of T4 and T3
Front
What is the source of adrenocorticotropic hormones (ACTH)?
Back
anterior pituitary (tropic hormones)
Front
What is the target of adrenocorticotropic hormones (ACTH)?
Back
adrenal cortex
Front
What is the action of adrenocorticotropic hormones (ACTH)?
Back
secretion of glucocorticoids
Front
What is the source of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)?
Back
anterior pituitary (tropic hormones)
Front
What is the target of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)?
Back
ovaries/testes
Front
What is the action of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)?
Back
regulate oogenesis and spermatogenesis
Front
What is the source of luteinizing hormone (LH)?
Back
anterior pituitary (tropic hormone)
Front
What is the target of luteinizing hormone (LH)?
Back
ovaries/testes
Front
What is the action of luteinizing hormone (LH)?
Back
regulate oogenesis and spermatogenesis
Front
What is the source of prolactin (PRL)?
Back
anterior pituitary (hormone)
Front
What is the target of prolactin (PRL)?
Back
mammary gland
Front
What is the action of prolactin (PRL)?
Back
production of milk
Front
What is the source growth hormone (GH)?
Back
anterior pituitary (hormone)
Front
What is the target growth hormone (GH)?
Back
bone/muscle
Front
What is the action growth hormone (GH)?
Back
stimulates growth
Front
What is the source glucagon?
Back
pancreatic alpha cells
Front
What is the target glucagon?
Back
liver
Front
What is the action of glucagon?
Back
increases blood glucose
Front
What is the source insulin?
Back
pancreatic beta cells
Front
What is the target insulin?
Back
liver/muscle/fat
Front
What is the action insulin?
Back
decreases blood glucose
Front
What is the source of epinephrine (adrenaline)?
Back
adrenal gland (medulla)
Front
What is the target of epinephrine (adrenaline)?
Back
blood vessels/liver/heart
Front
What is the action of epinephrine (adrenaline)?
Back
Increases blood glucose/vasoconstriction (sympathetic)
Front
What is the source of norepinephrine; (noradrenaline)?
Back
adrenal gland (medulla)
Front
What is the target of norepinephrine; (noradrenaline)?
Back
blood vessels/liver/heart
Front
What is the action of norepinephrine; (noradrenaline)?
Back
Increases blood glucose/vasoconstriction (sympathetic)
Front
What is the source of glucocorticoids (cortisol)?
Back
adrenal gland (cortex)
Front
What is the target of glucocorticoids (cortisol)?
Back
general
Front
What is the action of glucocorticoids (cortisol)?
Back
increases blood glucose
Front
What is the source of mineralocorticoids; (aldosterone)?
Back
adrenal gland (cortex)
Front
What is the target of mineralocorticoids; (aldosterone)?
Back
kidney
Front
What is the action of mineralocorticoids; (aldosterone)?
Back
increases reabsorption of Na+ and excretion of K+
Front
What is the source of T4 (thyroxin) and T3 (triiodothyronine)?
Back
thyroid
Front
What is the target of T4 (thyroxin) and T3 (triiodothyronine)?
Back
general
Front
What is the action of T4 (thyroxin) and T3 (triiodothyronine)?
Back
increases cellular metabolism
Front
What is the source of calcitonin?
Back
thyroid
Front
What is the target of calcitonin?
Back
bone
Front
What is the action of calcitonin?
Back
Lower blood Ca2+
Front
What is the source of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
Back
parathyroid
Front
What is the target of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
Back
bone
Front
What is the action of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
Back
increase blood Ca2+
Front
What is the source of testosterone?
Back
testis
Front
What is the target of testosterone?
Back
testes, general
Front
What is the action of testosterone?
Back
spermatogenesis/secondary sex characteristics
Front
What is the source of estrogen?
Back
ovary
Front
What is the target of estrogen?
Back
uterus/general
Front
What is the action of estrogen?
Back
menstrual cycle/secondary sex characteristics
Front
What is the source of progesterone?
Back
ovary
Front
What is the target of progesterone?
Back
uterus
Front
What is the action of progesterone?
Back
menstrual cycle/pregnancy
Front
What is the source of melatonin?
Back
pineal gland
Front
What is the target of melatonin?
Back
body
Front
What is the action of melatonin?
Back
circadian rhythm
Front
Which type of cell signaling synthesizes and secretes hormones into the bloodstream?
Back
endocrine
Front
Which type of cell signaling secretes enzymes into ducts?
Back
exocrine
Front
Sudoriferous, sebaceous, mucus, digestive, and mammary glands are examples of what kind of gland?
Back
exocrine
Front
What is the cell signaling where the target is nearby?
Back
paracrine;
Front
What kind of cell signaling utilizes hormone or chemical messengers that bind to receptors on the same cell?
Back
autocrine;
Front
What is the name for the substances that are transported throughout the body in blood to stimulate an action?
Back
hormones; (Note: a small amount has a large impact)
Front
What are the 3 categories of hormones?
Back
1. peptide; 2. steroid; 3. tyrosine derivatives
Front
Which category of hormone is synthesized in the; rough ER and modified in Golgi?
Back
peptide; (Note: acts on surface receptors typically via secondary messengers)
Front
When a peptide hormone is manufactured in the ER, what is it called?
Back
pre-prohormone
Front
When a peptide hormone is cleaved in the ER lumen, what is it called?
Back
prohormone
Front
After a peptide hormone leaves the ER lumen, where does it get cleaved again to reach its final form?
Back
golgi
Front
The golgi packages peptide hormones into what to be released in exocytosis?
Back
secretory vesicles
Front
Peptide hormones are soluble in what?
Back
water; (Note: can move freely though blood but can't diffuse well through cell membrane of effector - target cell);
Front
How do peptide hormones enter the target cell?
Back
attach to membrane- bound receptor to trigger an effect
Front
Receptors on target cell may act as what to increase membrane permeability to specific ions?
Back
ion channel
Front
Receptors on the target cell may activate or deactivate what to act as ion channels?
Back
intrinsic membrane proteins
Front
Receptors on target cell may activate what to create a cascade of effects?
Back
intracellular second messenger systems; (Note: hormone is the 'first' messenger, and other chemicals act as the 'second' messenger);
Front
A protein stimulating the production of second messengers is an example of what process?
Back
receptor mediated endocytosis;
Front
What kind of gland is the pancreas?
Back
exocrine and endocrine; (Note: it releases digestive enzymes via the pancreatic duct, and insulin + glucagon into blood);
Front
What structure secretes FSH, LH, ACTH, hGH, TSH, and prolactin?
Back
anterior pituitary; (Note: examples of peptide hormones);
Front
Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) and parathyroid hormone (PTH) are secreted by what structure?
Back
posterior pituitary; (Note: examples of peptide hormones);
Front
Glucagon and insulin are secreted by what structure?
Back
pancreas; (Note: examples of peptide hormones);
Front
Which category of hormone is synthesized from cholesterol in the smooth ER, are hydrophobic, and have intracellular receptors?
Back
steroid;
Front
What is the process called when a steroid hormone diffuses into a cell and activates a portion of DNA?
Back
direct stimulation;
Front
glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids (cortisol; and aldosterone) are secreted by what structure?
Back
adrenal cortex; (Note: examples of steroid hormones);
Front
estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone are produced by what structure?
Back
gonads; (Note: examples of steroid hormones - estrogen and progesterone are also secreted by the placenta)
Front
Which category of hormones are formed by enzymes in cytosol or on the rough ER?
Back
tyrosine derivatives
Front
Which tyrosine derivative hormones are lipid-soluble, require a protein carrier in the blood, and bind to receptors in the nucleus?
Back
thyroid hormones;
Front
What is the time frame of thyroid hormone action?
Back
The response has a latent period and increased duration
Front
What is the function of thyroid hormones in the body?
Back
increase transcription of many genes in nearly all cells of the body
Front
Which type of tyrosine derivative includes epinephrine and norepinephrine that are water-soluble, dissolve in blood, bind receptors on the target tissue, and mainly act via second messenger cAMP?
Back
catecholamines
Front
T3 and T4 (thyroxine) are which type of hormones?
Back
thyroid hormones;
Front
Where are hormone receptors located?
Back
on the membrane or inside the cell
Front
How can hormone regulation occur with respect to receptors?
Back
increasing or decreasing the number of receptors in response to hormone amount
Front
How can a single hormone have different effects with the same external receptors?
Back
signal transduction pathways or effector proteins differ
Front
What is the kind of feedback mechanism where the effector is the control point?
Back
negative feedback; (Note: not the concentration of the hormone)
Front
Which endocrine gland monitors the external environment and internal conditions of the body?
Back
hypothalamus;
Front
The hypothalamus contains neurosecretory cells that link the hypothalamus to what structure?
Back
pituitary gland; (Note: considered the link between the endocrine and nervous system);
Front
How does the hypothalamus regulate the pituitary?
Back
1. negative feedback mechanisms; 2. secretion of releasing and inhibiting hormones.
Front
ADH (vasopressin) and oxytocin to be stored in the posterior pituitary are secreted by what structure?
Back
hypothalamus;
Front
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) from neurons, which stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete FSH and LH, are secreted by what structure?
Back
hypothalamus;
Front
What structure mainly regulates hormone production by other glands, and is regulated itself by the hypothalamus?
Back
anterior pituitary;
Front
What type of hormones directly stimulate target organs?
Back
direct (non-tropic) hormones
Front
Which direct (non-tropic) hormone stimulates bone and muscle growth?
Back
hGH (somatotropin)
Front
Which direct (non-tropic) hormone stimulates growth in almost all cells of the body through metabolic modification?
Back
hGH (somatotropin)
Front
Which direct (non-tropic) hormone stimulates milk production in females from mammary gland cells?
Back
prolactin
Front
What can inhibit prolactin release?
Back
hypothalamus;
Front
Suckling stimulates the hypothalamus, which stimulates what structure to release prolactin?
Back
anterior pituitary;
Front
Why is there no milk production before birth?
Back
inhibitory effects on hypothalamus by progesterone and estrogen
Front
Which direct (non-tropic) hormone stimulates melanocytes to produce and release melanin?
Back
melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH)
Front
Which direct (non-tropic) hormone inhibit perception of pain (is technically a neurohormone)?
Back
endorphins
Front
Which type of hormone stimulate other endocrine glands?
Back
tropic hormones
Front
Which tropic hormone stimulates adrenal cortex —> release glucocorticoids via second messenger cyclic AMP?
Back
ACTH
Front
Release of ACTH is stimulated by which factors?
Back
many types of biological stress; (Note: glucocorticoids are stress hormones)
Front
Which tropic hormone stimulates the thyroid gland which in turn increases in size, cell number, and rate of secretion of hormones T3 and T4?
Back
thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
Front
T3 and T4 concentrations have what kind of effect on TSH release?
Back
negative feedback effect; (Note: at both the anterior pituitary and hypothalamus)
Front
Which tropic hormone in females, stimulates the formation of the corpus luteum, and in males, stimulates testosterone production?
Back
luteinizing hormone (LH)
Front
Which tropic hormone in females, stimulates estrogen secretion, and in males, stimulates maturation of seminiferous tubules and sperm production?
Back
follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
Front
What structure does not synthesize hormones, but stores ADH and oxytocin produced by the hypothalamus?
Back
posterior pituitary;
Front
What hormone increases the reabsorption of water by increasing the permeability of the nephron's collecting duct, which leads to water reabsorption and increased blood volume and pressure?
Back
anti-diuretic hormone (ADH/vasopressin)
Front
Coffee and alcohol block ADH, therefore resulting in what effect?
Back
increasing urine volume
Front
Which hormone is secreted during childbirth, increases the strength of uterine contractions, and stimulates milk ejection?
Back
oxytocin
Front
How do hormones travel from the hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary and into the blood?
Back
Neural cell bodies of the hypothalamus synthesize the hormones, and are transported down axons to the posterior pituitary where they are released into the blood;
Front
Which gland secretes melatonin which plays a role in the circadian rhythm?
Back
pineal gland;
Front
What are the endocrine glands in the human brain?
Back
1. hypothalamus,; 2. pituitary gland; 3. pineal gland
Front
Which gland is located on the ventral surface of the trachea, just in front of the trachea?
Back
thyroid;
Front
Thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) are lipid-soluble derivatives of which amino acid?
Back
tyrosine
Front
Which hormones are necessary for growth and neurological development in children, as well as increasing basal metabolic rate (BMR) in the body (negative feedback on TSH)?
Back
thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3)
Front
Thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) contain which notable periodic element?
Back
iodine
Front
What is the condition where the thyroid under-secretes, resulting in low heart rate, low respiratory rate, and low BMR?
Back
hypothyroidism
Front
What is the condition where the thyroid over secretes, increasing BMR and sweating?
Back
hyperthyroidism; (Note: both hypo and hyperthyroidism lead to goiter, or enlargement of thyroid gland)
Front
Which hormone is a peptide hormone that 'tones down' Ca2+ in blood?
Back
calcitonin
Front
calcitonin stimulates the activity of what cell?
Back
osteoblast, which builds up bone by using the calcium in the blood
Front
What does calcitonin do to plasma Ca2+ concentrations?
Back
decreases them; (Note: inhibiting its release from bone)
Front
What is calcitonin's effect on osteoclasts?
Back
decreases activity and number
Front
Which disorder of the thyroid results in dwarfism?
Back
achondroplasia
Front
Which disorder of the thyroid leads to premature aging, wrinkled skin, arthritis, and arteriosclerosis?
Back
progeria
Front
Which is the only gland that produces more than one type of hormone?
Back
thyroid;
Front
What are the four pea-shaped structures attached to the back of the thyroid?
Back
parathyroid;
Front
Which hormone is antagonistic to calcitonin?
Back
parathyroid hormone (PTH)
Front
PTH does what to Ca2+ concentrations in the blood?
Back
raises them; (Note: stimulating release from bone)
Front
What is the effect of PTH on osteocytes?
Back
1. increases osteocyte absorption of Ca2+ phosphate from bone; 2. stimulates osteoclast proliferation
Front
What is the effect of PTH on kidneys?
Back
1. increase Ca2+ reabsorption; 2. excrete renal phosphate; 3. increase production of vitamin D derived steroid, which increases Ca2+ uptake from gut
Front
What regulates parathyroid activity?
Back
Ca2+ plasma concentration; (Note: parathyroid glands grow or shrink accordingly)
Front
Which gland is involved in immune response, secretes thymosins that stimulate WBCs to become T cells that identify and destroy infected body cells?
Back
thymus;
Front
Which gland rests on top of the kidneys?
Back
adrenal gland;
Front
Which portion of the adrenal gland secretes only steroid hormones?
Back
adrenal cortex (outer portion);
Front
Which secretion of the adrenal cortex raises blood glucose levels, stimulating gluconeogenesis in the liver, and degrading adipose tissue to fatty acids for use as energy?
Back
glucocorticoids (cortisol and; cortisone)
Front
What do glucocorticoids cause in non-hepatic proteins and in non-hepatic amino acids?
Back
degradation; (Note: This results in a corresponding increase in liver/plasma proteins, and amino acids)
Front
What kind of hormone is cortisol?
Back
stress
Front
Which secretion of the adrenal cortex increases reabsorption of Na+ and excretion of K+ in kidneys?
Back
Mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)
Front
In what location does aldosterone act?
Back
distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct of nephron; (Note: increase Na/Cl reabsorption and K+/H+ secretion)
Front
What is the effect of aldosterone on blood pressure/volume?
Back
increases both; (Note: results from net gain of particles drawing water in the nephron - has the same effect, but to a lesser extent, on sweat/ salivary glands and intestines)
Front
Cortical sex hormones are secreted from which structure?
Back
adrenal cortex;
Front
Androgens are which class sex hormones?
Back
male; (Note: significant effect in females, but not in males because males have testes)
Front
Which portion of the adrenal gland secrete fight or flight catecholamines?
Back
adrenal medulla;
Front
The ""fight or flight"" response produced by the adrenal medulla is similar to which system's function?
Back
sympathetic nervous system; (Note: adrenal medulla's effect lasts longer, considered stress hormones)
Front
Epinephrine and norepinephrine cause the body to do what with glycogen?
Back
convert to glucose
Front
Epinephrine and norepinephrine are vasoconstrictors to which structures?
Back
internal organs + skin
Front
Epinephrine and norepinephrine are vasodilators to which structures?
Back
skeletal muscle
Front
Epinephrine and norepinephrine cause what effect on blood pressure and heart rate?
Back
increase both
Front
What is the effect of epinephrine and norepinephrine on metabolic activities
Back
Increase metabolic activities (glycogenolysis, lipolysis)
Front
What is the effect of epinephrine and norepinephrine on blood flow to the brain?
Back
Increase blood flow to the brain
Front
Which gland has bundles of cells called Islet of Langerhans?
Back
pancreas;
Front
Which cells of the pancreas secrete glucagon which is catabolic, and released when energy is low, thus raising blood glucose levels
Back
alpha cells;
Front
What effect does glucagon have on the liver?
Back
1. convert glycogen to glucose; 2. stimulate gluconeogenesis
Front
What effect does glucagon have on adipose tissue?
Back
convert adipose tissue to blood lipids
Front
Which cells of the pancreas secrete insulin, which is anabolic, released when blood levels of carbohydrates/proteins are high, thus lowering blood glucose levels?
Back
beta cells;
Front
What does insulin trigger tissues to do?
Back
absorb glucose
Front
What does insulin trigger liver and muscle cells to do?
Back
convert glucose to glycogen
Front
What does insulin trigger fat cells to do?
Back
convert blood lipids to adipose tissue storage
Front
Which cells does insulin cause to be highly permeable to glucose?
Back
most body cells, except for neurons/few others
Front
From which molecules is insulin derived?
Back
pre-proinsulin and pro-insulin; (Note: these molecules undergo hydrolysis reaction (by proteases) that modify them to active insulin)
Front
What do the delta cells of the pancreas release?
Back
somatostatin
Front
What is the effect of somatostatin on insulin and glucagon levels?
Back
inhibits them both; (Note: possibly increases nutrient absorption time)
Front
What is the effect of somatostatin on GI hormones?
Back
suppresses their release; (Note: decreases rate of gastric emptying and rate of blood flow to the intestines)
Front
Which gland secretes testosterone?
Back
testes;
Front
What hormone stimulates spermatogenesis and the development of secondary sex characteristics?
Back
testosterone
Front
Which gland secretes estrogen and progesterone?
Back
ovaries;
Front
Which hormone influences the menstrual cycle and female secondary sex characteristics?
Back
estrogen
Front
Which hormone influences menstrual cycle, pregnancy, and regulates formation of internal reproductive structures?
Back
progesterone
Front
What structure does the Mullerian duct differentiate into within an XX organism?
Back
oviduct;
Front
What structure does the Mullerian duct differentiate into within an XY organism?
Back
degenerates;
Front
What structure does the Wolffian duct differentiate into within an XX organism?
Back
degenerates;
Front
What structure does the Wolffian duct differentiate into within an XY organism?
Back
male reproductive structures;
Front
SRY genes are present on which chromosomes?
Back
Y chromosomes; (Note: in its absence, ovaries develop, in its presence, Sertoli cells form, which produces a signal that inhibits the formation of Mullerian ducts.)
Front
The Leydig cells that form from the presence of the Y chromosome produce which hormone?
Back
testosterone; (Note: causes Wolffian duct to further develop)
Front
Which gastrointestinal hormone breaks down food in; stomach, stimulates secretion of HCl?
Back
gastrin
Front
Which gastrointestinal hormone works in the small intestine; when acidic food enters from stomach and stimulates the release of bicarbonate from the pancreas?
Back
secretin
Front
Which gastrointestinal hormone works in the small intestine; the presence of fats causes gallbladder to release bile and pancreas to release digestive enzymes?
Back
cholecystokinin (CCK)
Front
What are the major components of the integumentary system?
Back
skin, hair, nails, glands, and some nerve endings
Front
What function of the skin is concerned with regulating body temperature?
Back
thermoregulation;
Front
What does the integumentary system do to reduce heat loss?
Back
shunt blood away; from the capillaries; of the skin and; erect hairs to trap; insulating air;
Front
What is the act of erecting hairs of the skin called?
Back
piloerection; (Note: goosebumps, the piloerection reflex, can occur when cold in response to stress/emotion. The response is believed to be a vestigial reflex that may have been used to make ancestors appear larger to scare off predators)
Front
What function of the skin is concerned with being a physical barrier to abrasion, bacteria, dehydration, many chemicals, and UV radiation?
Back
protection
Front
What function of the skin is concerned with gathering information about the environment by sensing temperature, pressure, pain, and touch?
Back
collecting environmental sensory input
Front
What function of the skin is concerned with excreting water and salts through the skin, and independent of sweating, we diffuse water out via insensible fluid loss?
Back
excretion;
Front
What function of the skin is concerned with using specialized cells of the epidermis as components of the immune system?
Back
immunity
Front
What function of the skin is concerned with making the vessels in the dermis hold up to 10% of the blood in a resting adult?
Back
blood reservior
Front
What function of the skin is concerned with UV radiation activating skin molecules that are precursors to vitamin D?
Back
vitamin D synthesis
Front
Which layer of the skin is the superficial, avascular epithelial tissue that relies on the dermis for oxygen and nutrients?
Back
epidermis
Front
Exposure of the epidermis to pressure/friction will result in thickening to form a what?
Back
callus
Front
What are the layers of the epidermis (superficial to deep)?
Back
1. stratum corneum; 2. stratum lucidum; 3. stratum granulosum; 4. stratum spinosum; 5. stratum basale; (Note: Come Lets Get SunBurnt!);
Front
Which layer of the epidermis has 25-30 dead layers of variable thickness; filled with keratin and surrounded by lipids. This layer contains lamellar granules to make it water repellant?
Back
stratum corneum;
Front
Which layer of the epidermis occurs only in palms, soles of feet, and fingertips, consists of 3-5 layers, and appears clear/dead?
Back
stratum lucidum;
Front
Which layer of the epidermis has 3-5 layers of dying cells; lamellar bodies release hydrophobic lipids?
Back
stratum granulosum;
Front
Which layer of the epidermis contributes to strength and flexibility; 8-10 layers held together by desmosomes which are keratin involving adhesion proteins?
Back
stratum spinosum;
Front
Which layer of the epidermis is the deepest layer of skin, contains Merkel cells and stem cells that divide to produce keratinocytes; is attached by the basement membrane and contains melanocytes?
Back
stratum basale;
Front
What happens as keratinocytes are pushed to the top layer of skin?
Back
they accumulate; keratin and die by; losing cytoplasm,; nucleus, and; other organelles;
Front
What happens to keratinocytes as they move to the outermost layer?
Back
slough off;
Front
Which cell of the epidermis produce the protein; keratin that helps waterproof the skin?
Back
keratinocytes; (Note: Keratin is the; most abundant protein; in the epidermis);
Front
Which cell of the epidermis transfer skin pigment melanin to keratinocytes?
Back
melanocytes;
Front
Which cell of the epidermis interacts with helper T cells of the immune system?
Back
Langerhan's cell;
Front
Which cell of the epidermis attaches to sensory neurons and functions in touch sensation?
Back
Merkel cell;
Front
What is the second layer of the skin that consists primarily of connective tissue, collagen and elastic fibers, and contains hair follicles, glands, nerves, and blood vessels?
Back
dermis;
Front
What describes the vascularity of the dermis?
Back
highly vascularized
Front
What connects the dermis to the epidermis?
Back
basement membrane;
Front
What are the two layers of the dermis?
Back
1. papillary; 2. reticular;
Front
Which layer of the dermis houses a thin vascular network within upward projecting papillae that helps supply nutrients to epidermis and regulates temperature?
Back
papillary region;
Front
What do the papillae in the papillary region of the dermis contain to help with touch?
Back
Meisner's corpuscles; (Note: their upward; projection is what; creates fingerprint ridges -; not to be confused with; tongue papillae that have; taste buds on their surface);
Front
What is the region of the dermis that region with dense connective tissue, collagen, and elastic fibers; packed with glands, sweat gland ducts, fat, and hair follicles?
Back
reticular region;
Front
What is the purpose of the reticular region of the dermis?
Back
provide strength and elasticity; (Note: stretch marks are dermal tears)
Front
What part of the integumentary system is technically not a part of the skin, but it is a part of the integumentary system; consisting of areolar and adipose tissue?
Back
hypodermis (subcutaneous);
Front
What is the function of the hypodermis?
Back
1. fat storage; 2. heat insulation; 3. shock absorber; (Note: The hypodermis also contains pressure sensing nerve endings and passages for blood vessels)
Front
Which skin gland is connected to a hair follicle, secretes oil (sebum), and keep skin slightly acidic?
Back
sebaceous (oil) gland; (Note: acne is caused; by these glands; getting clogged);
Front
Which skin glands regulate temperature through perspiration, eliminate urea, and open directly to skin?
Back
eccrine sudoriferous glands; (Note: located on most of body);
Front
Which skin glands are found in arm pit, pubic; region, and nipples; secretions are more viscous and open to hair follicles?
Back
apocrine sudoriferous glands;
Front
Which skin gland is found in ear canal and produce a wax-like material that acts as a barrier to entrance?
Back
ceruminous (wax) gland
Front
Which skin gland secretes milk for breastfeeding?
Back
mammary (milk) gland;
Front
Of what does hair consist?
Back
column of keratinized cells held tightly together
Front
how does hair stand on end?
Back
contraction of smooth muscles; (arrector/ erector pili);
Front
How deep is a first degree burn?
Back
epithelial layer
Front
How deep is a second degree burn?
Back
part of the dermal layer
Front
How deep is a third degree burn?
Back
into hypodermis
Front
What is an avascular connective tissue that is soft and flexible?
Back
cartilage; (Note: found in the ear, nose,; larynx, trachea, and joints);
Front
What are the 3 types of cartilage?
Back
1. hyaline (most common, reduces; friction and absorbs shock in joints); 2. fibrocartilage; 3. elastic;
Front
What cells create cartilage?
Back
chondrocytes;
Front
From what tissue do chondrocytes originate?
Back
mesenchyme
Front
What is the cartilaginous matrix that chondrocytes secrete made of?
Back
collagen and proteoglycans
Front
What substance is present in tissue as a triple helix with special amino acids hydroxyproline and hydroxylysine, ground substance, and elastin fibers?
Back
collagen;
Front
Of what is cartilage primarily composed?
Back
collagen fibers embedded in chondroitin sulfate
Front
How does cartilage receive nutrients?
Back
diffusion
Front
What is cartilage surrounded by?
Back
perichondrium; (Note: a dense fibrous connective tissue);
Front
What is the most abundant protein in vertebrates?
Back
collagen
Front
What is living connective tissue that is hard and strong while also elastic and lightweight?
Back
bone
Front
What are the functions of bone?
Back
1. support soft tissue; 2. protect internal organs; 3. assist in body movement; 4. mineral storage; 5. blood cell production; 6. energy storage (in the form of adipose cells in bone marrow)
Front
What is the most immature form of bone?
Back
woven bone;
Front
What is woven bone replaced by?
Back
lamellar bone;
Front
What are the types of lamellar bone?
Back
1. spongy; 2. compact;
Front
What is the basic framework of the skeleton that includes the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage?
Back
axial skeleton;
Front
What are the bones of appendages, pectoral and pelvic girdles?
Back
appendicular skeleton;
Front
What are immoveable joins that hold together the bones of the skull?
Back
sutures;
Front
What are joints that allow bones to move relative to each other?
Back
movable joints;
Front
What are bone to bone connectors that strengthen joints?
Back
ligaments; (Note: the ACL ligament connects the femur to the tibia and limits rotational knee movement);
Front
What are dense connective tissues that connect muscle to bone and bend skeleton at moveable joints?
Back
tendons;
Front
What is the point of attachment for muscle to stationary bone?
Back
origin;
Front
What is the point of attachment for muscle to a bone that moves?
Back
insertion;
Front
What motion is the straightening of a joint?
Back
extension;
Front
What motion is the bending of a joint?
Back
flexion;
Front
What is an opening in the bone that allows for the passage of nerves?
Back
foramen; (Note: foramen magnum in the skull allows for the passage of the spinal cord);
Front
What bone disorder describes the result of cartilage; that covers the bone ends of freely moveable joints beginning to wear away due to aging?
Back
osteoarthritis;
Front
What bone disorder is a degenerative disorder with a genetic basis where the cartilage of bone wears away?
Back
rheumatoid arthritis;
Front
How does the pelvic structure differ between males and females?
Back
pelvic bones are lighter and wider in females;
Front
How does the skull structure differ between males and females?
Back
male skulls have more defined features;
Front
Which joint type connects bones without allowing any movement?
Back
fibrous; (Note: ex: skull, pelvis, spinous process, and vertebrae);
Front
What joint type describes bones that are attached by cartilage and allow little movement?
Back
cartilaginous; (Note: ex: spine and ribs);
Front
Which joint type is the most common type of joint that allows for much more movement as it is filled with synovial fluid that acts as a lubricant?
Back
synovial;
Front
Which type of bone cell is part of the mesenchymal stem cell lineage that differentiates into osteoblasts?
Back
osteoprogenitor/osteogenic;
Front
Which type of bone cell secretes collagen and organic compounds upon which bone is formed?
Back
osteoblast; (Note: incapable of mitosis);
Front
Which type of bone cell differentiates into osteocytes when they release matrix materials around themselves?
Back
osteoblast;
Front
Which type of bone cell exchanges nutrients and waste material with the blood?
Back
osteocyte; (Note: incapable of mitosis);
Front
Which type of bone cell resorbs (destroy) bone matrix and release minerals back to the blood?
Back
osteoclast;
Front
Which type of bone cell have carbonic anhydrase, and develops from WBC's called monocytes?
Back
osteoclast; (Note: hematopoietic stem cell lineage);
Front
Which type of bone is highly organized, dense bone that doesn't appear to have cavities from outside?
Back
compact bone;
Front
Osteoclasts burrow tunnels that form canals called what?
Back
Haversian canals;
Front
What are the concentric rings formed by osteoblasts in compact bone?
Back
lamellae;
Front
Osteocytes trapped between the lamellae reside in a space called what?
Back
lacunae; (Note: within compact bone);
Front
How do lacunae within compact bone exchange nutrients?
Back
canaliculi;
Front
the Haversian canals contain what components?
Back
nerves, blood vessels, and lymph vessels
Front
What are Haversian canals connected by?
Back
Volkmann's canals;
Front
The entire system of lamellae + Haversian canals is called what?
Back
osteon;
Front
What structure surrounds the medullary cavity?
Back
compact bone;
Front
What substance fills the medullary cavity?
Back
yellow bone marrow (adipose tissue);
Front
Which type of bone is less dense bone that consists of an interconnecting lattice of bony spicules called trabeculae?
Back
spongey (cancellous) bone;
Front
What substance is spongey bone filled with?
Back
red bone marrow;
Front
What is red bone marrow the site of?
Back
hemopoiesis (RBC development)
Front
What kind of bone typically has a long shaft (diaphysis) and two ends?
Back
long bone;
Front
What are the two parts of the end of a long bone?
Back
metaphysis and epiphysis;
Front
What is the sheet of cartilage is found between the metaphysis and epiphysis called?
Back
epiphyseal plate;
Front
What is the location of bone growth?
Back
epiphyseal plate; (Note: Bone increases in both length and diameter along the diaphysis as well);
Front
Most of the Ca2+ in the body is stored in bone matrix as what substance?
Back
hydroxyapatite; (Note: calcium phosphate mineral)
Front
What is the main calcium compound in bone?
Back
Calcium phosphate (CaHPO4)
Front
How much of the calcium in the body is contained in bones and teeth?
Back
99%
Front
How do osteoblasts respond if stress is put on the bone?
Back
deposit collagen and release calcium phosphate to strengthen the bone; (Note: the mineral hydroxyapatite is produced)
Front
Endochondral ossification and Intramembranous ossification occur during which stage in development?
Back
fetal
Front
What type of bone formation describes when cartilage turns into bone (ex: long bones, limbs, fingers, toes)?
Back
Endochondral ossification
Front
What type of bone formation describes when undifferentiated connective tissue is replaced by bone (ex: flat bones, skull, sternum, mandible, clavicles)?
Back
Intramembranous ossification
Front
What membrane is bone surrounded by?
Back
periosteum; (Note: highly vascularized. Tendons associated with powerful movements highly integrate with it);
Front
What bone disease causes bone density to decrease, and the bone becomes easier to break and fracture?
Back
osteoporosis
Front
What hormone can help maintain bone density?
Back
estrogen; (Note: it can increase a female's risk of blood clots, heart disease, and cancer)
Front
Which practices helps decrease the risk of osteoporosis?
Back
ensure high calcium and vitamin D intake, and regular exercise
Front
What are the three types of muscles?
Back
skeletal, cardiac, and smooth
Front
Which muscles are involved in voluntary movement and contain fibers with multinucleate cells?
Back
skeletal;
Front
What are the filaments that are divided into; sarcomeres?
Back
myofibrils;
Front
What are the individual contractile units separated by a border?
Back
sarcomeres; (Note: border is called Z line);
Front
What stores Ca2+ and surrounds myofibrils in muscle tissue?
Back
sarcoplasmic reticulum;
Front
What is the same thing as cytoplasm, but located in muscle tissue?
Back
sarcoplasm;
Front
What is the plasma membrane of muscle cells that can propagate action potentials?
Back
sarcolemma;
Front
What are the channels for ion flow in the sarcolemma?
Back
T-tubules;
Front
Sarcolemma wraps several myofibrils together to form what structure?
Back
muscle cell (fiber);
Front
What organelles are present in large amounts in myofibrils?
Back
mitochondria;
Front
What is the structural unit of a myofibril in striated muscle?
Back
sarcomere;
Front
A sarcomere is composed of what components?
Back
thick and thin filaments;
Front
Thick filaments are composed of what unit?
Back
myosin (a protein);
Front
Thin filaments are composed of what units?
Back
actin polymers;
Front
What is the boundary of a single sarcomere and anchors thin filaments?
Back
Z line;
Front
What is the center of a sarcomere?
Back
M line;
Front
What is the region containing thin filaments (actin) only (on the ends) in a sarcomere?
Back
I band;
Front
What is the region containing thick filaments (myosin) only (in middle) in a sarcomere?
Back
H zone;
Front
What is the area where actin and myosin overlap?
Back
A band;
Front
Which regions of the sarcomere reduce during contraction?
Back
H and I; (Note: A does not);
Front
Striations in muscle are the result of what?
Back
alternating thin actin; and thick myosin; (I bands and A bands);
Front
What action of the muscular system can aid in circulation?
Back
contraction; (Note: squeeze blood and lymph vessels)
Front
How does a neuronal action potential cross a neuromuscular junction to excite a muscle?
Back
release acetylcholine; across the cleft;
Front
When an action potential occurs on the sarcolemma, where does it propagate?
Back
across the fiber; and into T-tubules;
Front
When an action potential travels down T-tubules, what does the sarcoplasmic reticulum release in response?
Back
release Ca 2+;
Front
After the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium, what occurs in the process of muscle contraction?
Back
myosin cross-bridges form,; resulting in Ca2+ binding to; troponin on an actin helix;
Front
What happens to calcium at the end of each contraction cycle?
Back
actively pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
Front
What are the steps of the sliding filament model?
Back
1. ATP binds to myosin head; 2. Ca2+ exposes binding sites on actin; 3. Cross bridges between myosin heads; and actin filaments form; 4. ADP + Pi are released; 5. New ATP attaches to the myosin head,; causing cross bridges to unbind;
Front
What is a neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates?
Back
motor unit;
Front
Each muscle fiber (cell) forms synapses with how many motor neurons?
Back
only one
Front
each motor neuron typically synapses with how many muscle fibers?
Back
multiple
Front
What depends on the number and size of active motor units and frequency of action potentials?
Back
The force of contraction;
Front
What size motor units tend to be recruited first?
Back
small motor units
Front
What result occurs when a greater quantity of muscle fibers are activated by the brain rather than an increase in frequency of action potentials that stimulate muscle fiber contraction?
Back
recruitment
Front
What size motor units are used for large, imprecise movements?
Back
large motor units
Front
What is the response of a single muscle fiber to brief stimulus?
Back
simple twitch;
Front
What are the steps of a simple twitch?
Back
1. latent period; 2. contraction; 3. relaxation;
Front
What step of a simple twitch is the time between stimulation and onset of contraction?
Back
latent period; (Note: during this time, an action potential spreads on the sarcolemma and Ca2+ ions are released);
Front
Which step of a simple twitch is the process of contraction following the sliding filament model?
Back
contraction;
Front
Which step of a simple twitch is the time where the muscle in unresponsive to a stimulus?
Back
relaxation; (Note: absolute refractory period like neuron);
Front
What is it called in a muscle when contractions combine and become stronger and more prolonged?
Back
summation;
Front
What is it called when a muscle experiences a continuously sustained contraction where a muscle cannot relax and will release if maintained?
Back
tetanus; (Note: In tetanus, the rate of muscle; stimulation is so fast that twitches blend together into one smooth constant);
Front
What is it called when a muscle is in a state of partial contraction where the muscle is never completely relaxed?
Back
tonus
Front
What stimulus causes no motor units to respond?
Back
sub-threshold stimulus;
Front
What stimulus causes one motor unit to respond?
Back
threshold stimulus;
Front
What stimulus causes an increasing number of motor units to respond?
Back
sub-maximal stimulus;
Front
What type of stimulus causes all motor units to respond?
Back
maximal stimulus;
Front
What type of stimulus causes all motor units to respond (greater level than maximal stimulus)?
Back
supra-maximal stimulus;
Front
What components remain constant during an action potential?
Back
Speed and amplitude; (Note: As stimulus intensity increases, the number of action potentials increases)
Front
What type of twitch is type I skeletal muscle?
Back
slow;
Front
What type of twitch is type IIA skeletal muscle?
Back
fast;
Front
What type of twitch is type IIB skeletal muscle?
Back
fast;
Front
What describes the myoglobin storage of type I skeletal muscle?
Back
lots of myoglobin
Front
What describes the myoglobin storage of type IIA skeletal muscle?
Back
lots of myoglobin
Front
What describes the myoglobin storage of type IIB skeletal muscle?
Back
low myoglobin; (Note: use glycolysis - primarily use anaerobic)
Front
What describes the mitochondria levels of type I skeletal muscle?
Back
lots of mitochondria
Front
What describes the mitochondria levels of type IIA skeletal muscle?
Back
lots of mitochondria; (Note: less than type I)
Front
What describes the mitochondria levels of type IIB skeletal muscle?
Back
low mitochondria
Front
What kind of endurance is type I skeletal muscle?
Back
aerobic endurance; (Note: they split ATP at a slow rate, causing type I fibers to be slow to fatigue but have slow contraction velocity)
Front
What kind of endurance is type IIA skeletal muscle?
Back
aerobic/anaerobic endurance; (Note: less than type I skeletal muscle - can use; aerobic and anaerobic unequally; split ATP at a high rate and contract rapidly; faster to fatigue)
Front
What type of endurance is type IIB skeletal muscle?
Back
anaerobic endurance; (Note: split ATP the fastest - fastest to fatigue)
Front
What color does type I skeletal muscle appear?
Back
red
Front
What color does type IIA skeletal muscle appear?
Back
reddish pink
Front
What color does type IIB skeletal muscle appear?
Back
white
Front
What relative diameter does type I skeletal muscle have?
Back
small
Front
What relative diameter does type IIA skeletal muscle have?
Back
intermediate
Front
What relative diameter does type IIB skeletal muscle have?
Back
large
Front
How often do skeletal muscles undergo mitosis?
Back
almost never; (but it will increase in size - hypertrophy)
Front
What happens during hypertrophy?
Back
1. increase in diameter of muscle fibers; 2. increased number of sarcomeres; 3. increased number of mitochondria; 4. increased sarcomere length
Front
which type of muscle is mainly involuntary, contains one central nucleus, lacks striation, stimulated by the autonomic nervous system, and are slow to contract?
Back
smooth muscle; (Note: lining of bladder, uterus, digestive tract, blood vessel walls, etc.)
Front
What does smooth muscle rely on instead of sarcomere organization?
Back
intermediate filaments are attached to dense bodies spread throughout the cell
Front
how does contraction occur in smooth muscle?
Back
Thick and thin filaments attached to intermediate filaments —> contract —> intermediate filaments pull dense bodies together —> smooth muscle length shrinks
Front
What type of smooth muscle is visceral; connected by gap; junctions, contract together?
Back
single unit; (Note: found in stomach,; uterus, and urinary bladder);
Front
What type of smooth muscle describes when each fiber is directly attached to the neuron; can contract independently?
Back
multi-unit; (Note: found in iris; and bronchioles);
Front
In addition to the neuronal response, smooth muscles can respond to what?
Back
1. hormones; 2. changes in pH; 3. O2; 4. CO2; 5. temperature; 6. ion concentration
Front
What does smooth muscle use instead of troponin?
Back
myosin light change kinase; (Note: Smooth muscle does not have T-tubules, striations, troponin, or tropomyosin)
Front
What kind of muscle Has striations, has intercalated discs with gap junctions, contract involuntarily, and have lots of mitochondria?
Back
cardiac muscle;
Front
What is the term describing the fact that both smooth and cardiac muscle are capable of contracting without stimuli from nerve cells?
Back
myogenic
Front
Nitrogenous waste is usually converted to what?
Back
Ammonia (later converted into urea in humans); (Note: excretion handling differs between organisms)
Front
Where are the places in the human body where excretion takes place?
Back
lungs, liver, skin, kidneys
Front
What is the overview of excretion in the lungs?
Back
CO2 and H20 (gases) diffuse from blood and are continually exhaled.
Front
What is the overview of excretion in the liver?
Back
processes:; - nitrogenous waste; - blood pigment wastes; - other chemicals; produces:; - urea
Front
What is the overview of excretion in the skin?
Back
sweat glands in skin secrete H20 and dissolved salts, regulating body temperature.; (Note: skin is largest organ. sweat gland function decreases as we age)
Front
What is the overview of excretion in the kidneys?
Back
takes in blood, filters and excretes substances based off homeostatic needs.
Front
What are the three regions of the kidney?
Back
1. outer cortex; 2. inner medulla; 3. renal pelvis (drains to ureter);

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